Sorry for the long delay in responding to your questions Cajun, I'm usually away for the weekends.
Second question first (cause it's easier
My follow up question was meant to be, if an immoral use is reasonably foreseable should the inventor be held responsible... and just how should we define reasonably foreseable.
As far as what led me to believe it was the lack of being able to define an absolute moral. The point has been argued in many posts here, and I understand the argument being put forth, my own beliefs lie very close to those. Perhaps this use of the word "absolute" is throwing off what I'm really trying to explore... so I'll state simply what I mean.
A moral or set of morals which is indisputable for humanity on this planet at any given time throughout history, the present and the future. They need not encompass a complete set of morals, only a base set on which no persons or group considered reasonable by humanity as a whole can disagree.
Documents such as the Universal Declaration of Human Rights attempts to define such a code of actions, minus the "at any given time throughout history" clause, and has met with mixed success and failure.
To more specifically address your post
Cajun what I'm saying is I agree with you, but I'm considering the idea that there more be a minimal set of morals which hold their absoluteness within a society which is humanity in general.
As pointed out a simple google shows so much debate it seems like a non-starter... but I'm not trying to say a complete set or even a useful set of morals may exist on an absolute level, only that there may be some.
-Rob