Hi all,
I have a question that needs clarification.
We have an old block of switches with a native vlan of 1. Most of the servers and routers run off this stack of switches and they are all in VLAN 1.
We recently added a new block of switches for users and these users are VLANed by department. This new block of switches needs to talk to the old block in order to "get out" and for access to certain servers. VLAN 1 on the new block points nowhere and is not used.
The way it is configured now is by using a static route from the new block to point to the old block via VLAN 5 created on the new block.
1st question.. why does this work if there is no such thing as VLAN 5 on the old block.
2nd question.. what are the implications of this?
I have a question that needs clarification.
We have an old block of switches with a native vlan of 1. Most of the servers and routers run off this stack of switches and they are all in VLAN 1.
We recently added a new block of switches for users and these users are VLANed by department. This new block of switches needs to talk to the old block in order to "get out" and for access to certain servers. VLAN 1 on the new block points nowhere and is not used.
The way it is configured now is by using a static route from the new block to point to the old block via VLAN 5 created on the new block.
1st question.. why does this work if there is no such thing as VLAN 5 on the old block.
2nd question.. what are the implications of this?