I was having a dissusion with another engineer at my work today regarding NAT. Specifically Static NAT, for example:
ip nat inside source static [local-addr] [global-addr]
int fa0/0
ip nat inside
int s0/0
ip nat outside
The situation is that the inside is actually a public ip address and the outside is a private ip address. Dont ask, extranet type thing
Now a packet going from [local-addr] to a destination global address, will be translated on the router from the [local-addr] to the [global-addr], and our ospf routing picks up the packet and routes it to its destination with a sources address o [global-addr]. Normal right?
Now I was told that in this situation a server with a global ip address could establish a session with a local server, ie bi-directional NAT, when a packet is sent to the [global-addr] .
This to me seems wrong. If I wanted this to happen I would do another nat statement:
ip nat outside source static [global-addr] [local-addr]
Has anyone tested this?
ip nat inside source static [local-addr] [global-addr]
int fa0/0
ip nat inside
int s0/0
ip nat outside
The situation is that the inside is actually a public ip address and the outside is a private ip address. Dont ask, extranet type thing
Now a packet going from [local-addr] to a destination global address, will be translated on the router from the [local-addr] to the [global-addr], and our ospf routing picks up the packet and routes it to its destination with a sources address o [global-addr]. Normal right?
Now I was told that in this situation a server with a global ip address could establish a session with a local server, ie bi-directional NAT, when a packet is sent to the [global-addr] .
This to me seems wrong. If I wanted this to happen I would do another nat statement:
ip nat outside source static [global-addr] [local-addr]
Has anyone tested this?