The first process that happens in my VB application is calling a stored procedure (from an ADO object)that submits a BEGIN TRANSACTION statement, an INSERT to table-A, and exits the SP without a ROLLBACK statement. The VB app then destroys the ADO object so no connection object is active. A second call from the VB app to the SQL Server with a different ADO object to run a SP that does an update (without any transaction statement) to table-B and it looks like the command is successful. The problem then occur when I try to SELECT (from Query Analyzer)the same data from table-B. The query never return because the page has been locked.
The question that I have is SQL Server treating both stored procedures as one transaction since it never receives the commit or rollback statement?? If so, is it tying the two SPs because they have the same sessionID??
Thanks for your time guys.
The question that I have is SQL Server treating both stored procedures as one transaction since it never receives the commit or rollback statement?? If so, is it tying the two SPs because they have the same sessionID??
Thanks for your time guys.