Hi,
I have defined an application role in my SQL Server 2000 database 'myRole'. This is becuase I only want users of a particular application to SELECT from 3 tables, and EXECUTE 9 stored procedures.
However, I am a little confused - if there are only the 3 tables used in the stored procedures do I have to grant SELECT permissions seperately, or does SQL Server assume that if the application has permission to execute te stored procedures then it has access to the tables as well?
Basically I am wondering if granting SELECT on the tables is overkill or not or if it is necessary.
Thanks in advance,
MrPeds
I have defined an application role in my SQL Server 2000 database 'myRole'. This is becuase I only want users of a particular application to SELECT from 3 tables, and EXECUTE 9 stored procedures.
However, I am a little confused - if there are only the 3 tables used in the stored procedures do I have to grant SELECT permissions seperately, or does SQL Server assume that if the application has permission to execute te stored procedures then it has access to the tables as well?
Basically I am wondering if granting SELECT on the tables is overkill or not or if it is necessary.
Thanks in advance,
MrPeds