I'm going to configure a Cat3550 to use with a VPN gateway. Here is a very simple logical network diagram:
VPN_Client<--ISDN-->Router_A
|
|--VLAN10
|
VPN_GW
|
|--VLAN11
|
Router_B<--VLAN12-->Switch_A
|
|--VLAN13
|
Switch_B
The Cat3550 switch will take the role of VLAN10,11,12,13 and Router_B. So I created 4 VLANs in the switch and created 4 VLAN interfaces with IP address EXCEPT VLAN10 (in this case the Cat3550 will only route VLAN11,12,13, making VLAN10 act like a standalone switch).
I've read some official documents and they said that when connecting a Cat3550 to another router, you have to use the command "no switchport" in a FE interface to make it a routed/layer-3 port before connecting the port to the router. And then add an ip address to the routed port which belongs to the same subnet as the port in the other router.
However in my case, Router_A is connected to a FE port on VLAN10 in Cat3550. To my understanding, this FE port should act as a layer-2 port. So do I still need to use the "no switchport" command and give it an IP address?
Thanks for help.
VPN_Client<--ISDN-->Router_A
|
|--VLAN10
|
VPN_GW
|
|--VLAN11
|
Router_B<--VLAN12-->Switch_A
|
|--VLAN13
|
Switch_B
The Cat3550 switch will take the role of VLAN10,11,12,13 and Router_B. So I created 4 VLANs in the switch and created 4 VLAN interfaces with IP address EXCEPT VLAN10 (in this case the Cat3550 will only route VLAN11,12,13, making VLAN10 act like a standalone switch).
I've read some official documents and they said that when connecting a Cat3550 to another router, you have to use the command "no switchport" in a FE interface to make it a routed/layer-3 port before connecting the port to the router. And then add an ip address to the routed port which belongs to the same subnet as the port in the other router.
However in my case, Router_A is connected to a FE port on VLAN10 in Cat3550. To my understanding, this FE port should act as a layer-2 port. So do I still need to use the "no switchport" command and give it an IP address?
Thanks for help.