Does VPN work like this?

[caadoptees]

We have a VPN setup that we would like to get working. However, I need to make sure that VPN is doing what I think it should do. Here is the scenario:

We have many remote sites that do not go through our bank of IP's, hence the VPN to keep some semblance of security. We have our servers on one subnet (the 'secure' one) and the primary ("dial-in&quot address of the VPN server is on a non-secure subnet. The VPN is using a bank of IP's on the 'secure' subnet. We want to be able to have these remote sites access to our servers on the 'secure' subnet.

Here is what I thought that VPN would do, please correct any errors. When a user connects to the VPN server they get assigned an IP from the 'secure' subnet and a route is put in place to go direct 'secure' traffic to that subnet (I have verified this via ROUTE PRINT). But the source IP (from a 'secure' server) shows that their IP is from their local subnet! I thought that VPN makes it look like a user is coming from the internal network, that any traffic destined to the internal network is given an internal IP? Is this true, or have I missed something in a configuration?

Thanks!


Roger