Everyone is suggesting not to refer to a view in a Stored Procedure because the precompile version of the SP does not include the execution plan for the views that are being used in the SP. Is this true?
I don't see why referencing a view in a SP is any different that referencing tables directly. I am trying to simplify my stored procedure by reducing the some of the statements that are redundents.
Does anyone know for sure that SQL Server really does NOT save the execution plan for the view?
I don't see why referencing a view in a SP is any different that referencing tables directly. I am trying to simplify my stored procedure by reducing the some of the statements that are redundents.
Does anyone know for sure that SQL Server really does NOT save the execution plan for the view?