(Not quite modern grammar, but I have no doubt that someone on MAI will know the answer!)

Does anyone know whether the two are interchangeable in Middle English, or whether there are rules deciding when you'd use one over the other?

I'm struggling to google this, all that comes up is biblical references! I found a post on a (non grammar related) forum that said '"shall" is not second person singular in medieval English.', but of course one cannot trust everything one reads on the internet ;)

Many thanks!

~LFCfan
Short stories, mainly in fantasy/SF settings.
Come along and tell me what you think of the worlds I build!

==> the two are interchangeable in Middle English
In Middle English?  Granted I am not an expert on ME, but I would say no, they are not.  Shalt is/was only valid for 2nd person singular, and shall was used for all other tenses and/or number.  The 2nd person singular reference is on the right track, but it's not about when 'shall' should not be used, but rather, when 'shalt' may be used.

I shall not go the store.  You (singular) shalt not go do the story.  You (plural) shall not go the store.  We shall not go to the store.

Technically, I guess the rule still applies, but shalt has gone by the way of other archaic terms.  If you really want to use shalt, then I would continue to use it only in 2nd person singular.


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See:

H.W. Fowler (1858–1933).  The King's English, 2nd ed.  1908.
http://www.bartleby.com/116/213.html

Ben
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Thanks both.

I saw it used (seemingly) interchangeably in a poem, and I was confused.

Quote:

...For thou shalt not kill, woman,
but thou shall be maimed
...

I am the first to admit I know nothing of poetry so it's probably there on purpose for whatever reason!

~LFCfan
Short stories, mainly in fantasy/SF settings.
Come along and tell me what you think of the worlds I build!